It is called Pythagoras' theorem because it's impossible to find the exact length of the hypotenuse of a right angle isosceles triangle which is an irrational number in the same way that it is impossible to find the exact area of a circle because the value of pi is also an irrational number.
YES!!! It was discovered by a Classical Greek Mathematician, named Pythagoras. However, have a look in Wikipedia under Pythagoras' Theorem Proof. There it will give you both an algebraic proof, a geometric proof, and a proof by similar triangles. The equation c^2 = a^2 + b^2 was known before Pythagoras, but he introduced it to western civilization.
It was years before, Pythagoras(580 BC - 500 BC) is said to have discovered Pythagorean Theorem. Strangely, 5 centuries after Pythagoras lived, the theorem Pythagorean was attributed to him. The discovery of the theorm Pythagorean came when Pythagoras was waiting for the tyrannical ruler, Polycrates. An interesting idea had flashed Pythagoras mind: A diagonal line can be used to cut or divide the square and two right triangles would be produced from the cut sides. After examining it further, Pythagoras formulated the idea in mind. Happy to help you.
To school children in the Western world, Pythagoras is probably best known for Pythagoras theorem. However, apart from Eurocentrism, there is little to connect Pythagoras with the theorem since it was known to Mesopotemian, Chinese and Indian mathematicians for centuries before Pythagoras.
Although the mathematical facts of the theorem existed - even before humans did - the theorem itself did not exist until Pythagoras thought of it. In that sense, he did not FIND it because it did not exist until he had thought of it.
Pythagoras IDIOT Actually "The Chinese also knew this theorem. It is attributed to Tschou-Gun who lived in 1100 BC." Quoted from http://www.arcytech.org/java/Pythagoras/history.HTML
There is no exact time that has been traced to Pythagoras writing this theorem. In fact, there are many who question whether the theorem was not created hundreds of years before Pythagoras. Pythagoras is widely thought to have lived from 569-475 BC, so it would be safe to assume that he would be credited sometime around this time period.
Actually, the theorem has been used long ago before mathematician called Pythagoras came along. It was previously already applied in Indian society. The theorem only came to be known as "Pythagoras Theorem" because he (or his students) were the first ones to construct a proof for the theorem.
Finkelstein invented it. Pythagoras was his agent. Pythagoras got 15% off the top and slapped his name on it just before it went to press. Finkelstein got the short end of that one. All he could do was pack up his triangles and go home, never to be heard from again.
because he made it easier than it was before
Although t is known as Pythagoras' theorem and thus about 2500-2600 years old, considering Pythagoras lived between 5th and 6th century BC, it was known before this. There is evidence that the Babylonians of 20th to 16th century BC (some 1000 years before Pythagoras) knew it, making it about 3600-4000 years old.
Pythagoras developed the theorem of the relationship between the three sides of a right (or right-angled) triangle.His theorem is: a2 + b2 = c2or, the square of the side opposite the right angle (this side - c - is called the hypotenuse) is equal to the sum of the areas of the squares whose sides (a and b) meet at the right angle.The link below explains, more clearly than I, this theorem, which was discussed long before Pythagoras. Pythagoras was the one whose written description of the phenomenon went into recorded history, but he didn't claim to have invented it (and it's debatable that one can claim to invent something which already exists not simply in theory but before one's eyes).
Pythagoras (after whom it is named) lives from 570 to 495 B.C.; it's possible that others already knew the theorem before him.