Yes. Consider two negative fractions. Since they are negative, both are less than 1. But their product is positive and so greater than either.
It is greater as for example 3/4 divided by 1/4 is equal to 3
You find the common denominator for both fractions and which ever has the highest numerator is greater.
The quotient need not be greater than a whole number less than one!
they are the same they are both 9
Yes, but this is true of not just unit fractions but any positive number.
Greater the divisor is less than 1,so the quotient is greater than the dividend
You don't. Proper fractions are less than one, improper fractions are greater.
This is simply not true.Consider 2/9 and 2/3Then (2/9) / (2/3) = (2/9)*(3/2) = 1/3and the last time I looked, 1/3 was not greater than 2/3.So, if it is not greater than one fraction, it cannot be greater than both.
The statement is simply not true.Consider 2/9 and 2/3, both are fractions which are less than 1.Their quotient is (2/9) / (2/3) = (2/9)*(3/2) = 3/9 = 1/3The last time I checked, 1/3 was not greater than 2/3. I have no idea where you are getting your rubbish assertions from.
Fractions greater than 1 are to the right of 1 and fractions less than 1 are to its left.
It will be greater.
The quotient will be less than one.
When you divide a number by a fraction between zero and one, the quotient will be greater than that number.
The quotient is less than the fraction.
The remainder is less than the divisor because if the remainder was greater than the divisor, you have the wrong quotient. In other words, you should increase your quotient until your remainder is less than your divisor!
Less than 1 because the numerator (3.6) is less than the denominator (9) and both are positive.
There can be no reason because your assertion is not true.For example, 1/6 and 1/2 are both fractions less than one. But their quotient is (1/6)/(1/2) = (1/6)*(2/1) = 2/6 = 1/3. And that is not more than 1/2.
No, improper fractions (ex: 3/2) are greater than one.