answersLogoWhite

0

It need not be. The numbers 1/2 and (-1/2) are both fractions less than 1 but their quotient is -1, which is less than both the fractions.

User Avatar

Wiki User

7y ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

JordanJordan
Looking for a career mentor? I've seen my fair share of shake-ups.
Chat with Jordan
SteveSteve
Knowledge is a journey, you know? We'll get there.
Chat with Steve
BlakeBlake
As your older brother, I've been where you are—maybe not exactly, but close enough.
Chat with Blake

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Why is the quotient of two fractions less than 1 greater than both?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp