There can be no reason because your assertion is not true.
For example, 1/6 and 1/2 are both fractions less than one. But their quotient is (1/6)/(1/2) = (1/6)*(2/1) = 2/6 = 1/3. And that is not more than 1/2.
It need not be. The numbers 1/2 and (-1/2) are both fractions less than 1 but their quotient is -1, which is less than both the fractions.
The quotient is less than the fraction.
The quotient will be less. 1/2 ÷ 2 = 1/4
A fraction with a value of less than zero.
By checking if its a mixed fraction
Yes. Consider two negative fractions. Since they are negative, both are less than 1. But their product is positive and so greater than either.
It need not be. The numbers 1/2 and (-1/2) are both fractions less than 1 but their quotient is -1, which is less than both the fractions.
There can be no answer because it is not necessarily true. Suppose f1 and f2 are two fractions.Suppose f1 = 1/2, which is less than 1;suppose f2 = -1/4, which is also less than 1.Then f1/f2 = -2 which is, in fact, smaller than either fraction. Go figure!
The quotient is less than the fraction.
The statement is simply not true.Consider 2/9 and 2/3, both are fractions which are less than 1.Their quotient is (2/9) / (2/3) = (2/9)*(3/2) = 3/9 = 1/3The last time I checked, 1/3 was not greater than 2/3. I have no idea where you are getting your rubbish assertions from.
The quotient will be less. 1/2 ÷ 2 = 1/4
No. 1/5 divided by 1/2 = 2/5 (that's less than 1/2) 1/10 divided by 1/3 = 3/10 (that's less than 1/3)
Yes, but this is true of not just unit fractions but any positive number.
A fraction with a value of less than zero.
When you divide a number by a fraction between zero and one, the quotient will be greater than that number.
It is greater as for example 3/4 divided by 1/4 is equal to 3
By checking if its a mixed fraction