0
No.
In general, a function f (from set A to set B) has an inverse if, for any elements a and b in A [f(a) and f(b) in B],
f(a) = f(b) imples that a = b.
Strictly speaking then, y = x2 does not have an inverse because each value of x2 (except 0) maps on to 2 distinct values of y. This does not accord with the definition of a function.
For example, f(-2) = f(2) = 4
but -2 is not 2 so sqrt is technically NOT a function.
Still curious? Ask our experts.
Chat with our AI personalities
Taiga
Beau
EzraAdd your answer:
Earn +20 pts
How are exponential and logarithmic functions related?
They are inverses of each other.
What is the difference between exponential functions and logarithmic functions?
Exponential and logarithmic functions are different in so far as each is interchangeable with the other depending on how the numbers in a problem are expressed. It is simple to translate exponential equations into logarithmic functions with the aid of certain principles.
How do you find the inverse of a function?
you take f(g(x)) and g(f(x)) of the two functions and the answers should be the same, if the answers are different they are not inverses.
Describe a situation that could be represented by g x?
A situation that could be represented by g x is when proving that 2 given functions are inverses of Each Other.
What is an inverse hyperbolic function?
The inverses of hyperbolic function are the area hyperbolic functions. They are called area functions becasue they compute the area of a sector of the unit hyperbola x2 − y2 = 1 This is similar to the inverse trig functions which correspond to arclength of a sector on the unit circle
