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No.
In general, a function f (from set A to set B) has an inverse if, for any elements a and b in A [f(a) and f(b) in B],
f(a) = f(b) imples that a = b.
Strictly speaking then, y = x2 does not have an inverse because each value of x2 (except 0) maps on to 2 distinct values of y. This does not accord with the definition of a function.
For example, f(-2) = f(2) = 4
but -2 is not 2 so sqrt is technically NOT a function.
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They are inverses of each other.
What is the difference between exponential functions and logarithmic functions?
Exponential and logarithmic functions are different in so far as each is interchangeable with the other depending on how the numbers in a problem are expressed. It is simple to translate exponential equations into logarithmic functions with the aid of certain principles.
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you take f(g(x)) and g(f(x)) of the two functions and the answers should be the same, if the answers are different they are not inverses.
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A situation that could be represented by g x is when proving that 2 given functions are inverses of Each Other.
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