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according to sum of fractions: a/b + c/d = (ad+bc)/bd hence for example: a=c=1 , b=d=2: (ad+bc)/bd = (2+2)/2x2 = 4/4 = 1 sagy

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Q: How do two fractions have a difference close to 0?
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Related questions

What represents the differences between two equal fractions?

If two fractions are equal then the difference between them is zero (0).


Does 1 represent the difference between two equal fractions?

No, the relevant difference is 0.


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Yes.


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Yes, but only if the two fractions are the same or equivalent fractions (other than 0).


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They are rational fractions.


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How can you have 0 as the difference of two squares? 5^2-5^2?


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What fraction is closest to zero?

Fractions are infinitely dense and this means that between any two fractions there an infinite number of fractions. If any fraction, f, laid claims to being the nearest, there would be infinitely many fractions between 0 and f and so infinitely many fractions which were closer to 0. This means that f could not be the closest. The argument can be used again and again and so there cannot be a fraction closest to 0.


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0 is the answer