according to sum of fractions: a/b + c/d = (ad+bc)/bd hence for example: a=c=1 , b=d=2: (ad+bc)/bd = (2+2)/2x2 = 4/4 = 1 sagy
60
Unless it's negative, yes. Proper fractions are between -1 and 1.
Well, honey, you can graph fractions by dividing your axes into equal parts and plotting the numerator over the denominator. As for mixed numbers, just convert them to improper fractions first. It's not rocket science, just basic math with a little extra sass.
Yes, simply treat the middle coefficient as 0.
6.08 = (6 x 1) + (0/10) + (8/100)
If two fractions are equal then the difference between them is zero (0).
No, the relevant difference is 0.
Yes.
Yes, but only if the two fractions are the same or equivalent fractions (other than 0).
If I understand correctly, zero would be the difference. Like: 5/10-1/2=0 or 2/3-2/3=0 hope this was helpful!
They are rational fractions.
There are infinite fractions between any two whole numbers.
How can you have 0 as the difference of two squares? 5^2-5^2?
Choose D. Anything minus itself equals zero.
Fractions are infinitely dense and this means that between any two fractions there an infinite number of fractions. If any fraction, f, laid claims to being the nearest, there would be infinitely many fractions between 0 and f and so infinitely many fractions which were closer to 0. This means that f could not be the closest. The argument can be used again and again and so there cannot be a fraction closest to 0.
I think that you meant factors, not fractions. If you meant factors, then it would be 7 and 3. If you did mean fractions, then it would be 0/21 and 210/21.
The difference is 0.