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Well, 'x' is equal to 'z'. Back in plane geometry, there was a mantra that said: "Two quantities equal to the same quantity are equal to each other." This question is an example of that mantra. So for Example: If x = 10 Then x = y (making y = 10) y = z (making z = 10) therefore z is the same.
-zy or y(-z) and viceversa or y x -z and viceversa
No. If we let x be irrational, then 0/x = 0 is a counterexample. However, if we consider nonzero rational numbers, then our conjecture is true. We shall prove this by contradiction. Suppose we have nonzero rational numbers x and y, and an irrational number z, such that x/z = y. Since z is not equal to 0, x = yz. Since y is not equal to 0, x/y = z. Since x/y is a quotient of rational numbers, x/y is rational. Therefore, z is rational, contradicting our assumption that z was irrational. QED.
x=abs(y+z) x=+(y+z)=y+z x=-(y+z)=-y-z