Q: What is the inverse of y equals 2 to the x power?

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y=x+2/4 (x+2 is all over four)

x=(y-3)/2

If you are saying that the original function is g(x) = 0.75x + 2, then the inverse, or g'(x), would be equal to (4/3)(x - 2).

A similar question can be solved as below : If x to the power 4 plus 1 upon x to the power 4 equals 23 then what will be (x minus 1 upon x) to the power 2 equals what?a2 + b2 = (a + b)^2 - 2ab.so (x^2 )^2 + (1/x2)^2 = (x^2 + 1/x^2)^2 - 2 = 23.so (x^2 + 1/x^2) = 5.therefore(x - 1/x)^2 = (x^2 + 1/x^2) -2 = 5 -2 = 3.

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Related questions

Y = ex(x + 2) Y = ex/(X + 2) =========

g(x) = x/2

The inverse is not a function because it fails the vertical line test.

y-1=(x-2)^1/2

Inverse proportion implies xy = c where c is the constant of [inverse] proportionality. x = 2 and y = 36 implies xy = 72 = c So the relationship is xy = 72 Then, if x = 4, y = 72/x = 72/4 = 18

x=y is the identity. It is its own inverse. So the inverse is y=x.

y=x+2/4 (x+2 is all over four)

To find the inverse simply switch the x's with the y's so... inverse of y=x is x=y

No, f(x) is not the inverse of f(x).

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x=(y-3)/2

To find the inverse, replace y with x, and x with y. So, the inverse of the equation is: x = 4yWhich is equal to:y = x/4