t(n) = 3(n-1) + 1, for n = 1, 2, 3, etc
10 to the power 0 is 1
110 million = (1 x 10^8) + (1 x 10^7) + (0 x 10^6) + (0 x 10^5) + (0 x 10^4) + (0 x 10^3) + (0 x 10^2) + (0 x 10^1) + (0 x 10^0)
100.100 = (1 x 100) + (0 x 10) + (0 x 1) + (1/10) + (0/100) + (0/1000)
18,801,310 = (1 x 10^9) + (8 x 10^8) + (0 x 10^7) + (8 x 10^6) + (0 x 10^5) + (1 x 10^4) + (0 x 10^3) + (3 x 10^2) + (1 x 10^1) + (0 x 10^0)
3 is the answer
+3 -3 +4 -3 +5 -3
Not sure what PEMBAS is. It does not include D nd so division is clearly not part of whatever rule you are referring to. 50*1 - 60 - 60*0 + 10 = 50 - 60 - 0 + 10 = 0
+3, -3, +4, -3, +5, -3, (+6, -3, +7, -3...)
t(n) = 3(n-1) + 1, for n = 1, 2, 3, etc
The rule is 5, 10, 15 and so the next number will be 20+31 = 51
[(4 * 10^2) + (0 * 10^1) + (0 * 10^0)] + [(1 * 10^1) + (0 * 10^0)]
The rule for the nth term is t(0) = 23 t(n) = mod[t(n-1) + 2n-1, 26] for n = 1, 2, 3, ...
Well, isn't that a lovely pattern you've got there! If we look closely, we can see that each number is decreasing by 10. So, the pattern rule for this sequence is to subtract 10 from the previous number to get the next one. Keep exploring patterns, my friend, and let your creativity flow!
0 1 0 1 0 1 0 10 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 10 1 01 this kind
1 xD :P )
Normally 1 - 1 = 0 the binary number for 1 is 1 the binary number for 2 is 10 the binary number for 3 is 11 3 - 2 = 1 The binary form of that equation is 11 - 10 = 1 The binary inverse operation would be 1 + 10 = 11 The rest is binary math 11 + 10 = 101 10 + 10 = 100 101 - 1 = 100 100 - 1 = 11 11 - 1 = 10 10 - 1 = 1 1 - 1 = 0 Therefore according to the pattern being displayed, the binary code for zero is 0.