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Does the set of rational number overlap the set of irrational numbers why?
By definition, the two sets do not overlap. This is because the irrationals are defined as the set of real numbers that are not members of the rationals.
Name set which -10 belongs Ex-whole integers rational?
Negative integers, integers, negative rationals, rationals, negative reals, reals, complex numbers are some sets with specific names. There are lots more test without specific names to which -10 belongs.
Is the set of all real numbers continuous and the set of all integers discrete?
Yes, every Cauchy sequence of real numbers is convergent. In other words, the real numbers contain all real limits and are therefore continuous, and yes the integers are discrete in that the set of integers only contains (very very few, with respect to the set of rationals) rational numbers, i.e. their values can always be accurately displayed unlike the set of reals which is dense with irrational numbers. It's so dense with irrationals in fact, that by comparison, the set of rationals can be called a null set, however that is a different topic.
Why the set of rationals does not form a group wrt multiplication?
All the elements in a group must be invertible with respect to the operation. The element 0, which belongs to the set does not have an inverse wrt multiplication.
Why is every rational number a real number?
There are rational numbers and irrational numbers. Real numbers are DEFINED as the union of the set of all rational numbers and the set of all irrational numbers. Consequently, all rationals, by definition, must be real numbers.
