If xyz=1, then it is very likely that x=1, y=1, and z=1. So plug
these in. 1=logbase1of1, 1=logbase1of1, 1=logbase1of1. You end up
with 1=1, 1=1, and 1=1. That's your proof.
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∙ 11y ago
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Q: How do you prove that xyz equals 1 if x equals logy z and y equals logz x and z equals logx y?