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How is the value of the correlation coefficient related to the accuracy of the predicated value for a specific value x?
Wiki User
∙ 10y ago
The nearer the absolute value of the correlation coefficient is to 1, the higher the accuracy of the predicted value. At r = 0, any prediction based on the independent variable is inaccurate - to the extent of being a waste of time.
The nearer the absolute value of the correlation coefficient is to 1, the higher the accuracy of the predicted value. At r = 0, any prediction based on the independent variable is inaccurate - to the extent of being a waste of time.
The nearer the absolute value of the correlation coefficient is to 1, the higher the accuracy of the predicted value. At r = 0, any prediction based on the independent variable is inaccurate - to the extent of being a waste of time.
The nearer the absolute value of the correlation coefficient is to 1, the higher the accuracy of the predicted value. At r = 0, any prediction based on the independent variable is inaccurate - to the extent of being a waste of time.
Wiki User
∙ 10y ago
Wiki User
∙ 10y agoThe nearer the absolute value of the correlation coefficient is to 1, the higher the accuracy of the predicted value. At r = 0, any prediction based on the independent variable is inaccurate - to the extent of being a waste of time.
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Very few people will assume, given NO correlation, that there is also a casual relationship.I will assume that you meant the fallacy in assuming that if "there is no correlation between two events there is also nocausal relationship".Correlation is a measure of linear relationship. If there is a non-linear relationship it is possible for the correlation to be low. Or, in the extreme case of a relationship that is symmetric about a specific value of the explanatory variable, for the correlation to be zero.Very few people will assume, given NO correlation, that there is also a casual relationship.I will assume that you meant the fallacy in assuming that if "there is no correlation between two events there is also nocausal relationship".Correlation is a measure of linear relationship. If there is a non-linear relationship it is possible for the correlation to be low. Or, in the extreme case of a relationship that is symmetric about a specific value of the explanatory variable, for the correlation to be zero.Very few people will assume, given NO correlation, that there is also a casual relationship.I will assume that you meant the fallacy in assuming that if "there is no correlation between two events there is also nocausal relationship".Correlation is a measure of linear relationship. If there is a non-linear relationship it is possible for the correlation to be low. Or, in the extreme case of a relationship that is symmetric about a specific value of the explanatory variable, for the correlation to be zero.Very few people will assume, given NO correlation, that there is also a casual relationship.I will assume that you meant the fallacy in assuming that if "there is no correlation between two events there is also nocausal relationship".Correlation is a measure of linear relationship. If there is a non-linear relationship it is possible for the correlation to be low. Or, in the extreme case of a relationship that is symmetric about a specific value of the explanatory variable, for the correlation to be zero.
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