yes it does !!
Perfectly competitive firms are price takers. This means that they can sell as much or as little as they want, but only at the going market price. When this happens, the market price is the same as their marginal revenue. Thus, P=MC is the same as P=MR.
to savewv time
It can be substituted because the industry would become purely competitive.
If the firm operates in a perfectly competitive industry, profit is maximised at the ouput level where mc=mr.
(inelastic portion is when MR = negative figure) Yes , because the optimum point is when MR equals to MC and there is no hell a way when MC is negative. Other than this, when the price is at the upper proportion of monopoly demand curve, the price is always higher and the monopoly firm will earn supernormal profit. Any answer which is reasonable will be accept.
..in london
Perfectly competitive firms are price takers. This means that they can sell as much or as little as they want, but only at the going market price. When this happens, the market price is the same as their marginal revenue. Thus, P=MC is the same as P=MR.
to savewv time
The correct formula is E = MC².
It can be substituted because the industry would become purely competitive.
If the firm operates in a perfectly competitive industry, profit is maximised at the ouput level where mc=mr.
M = mass
When price (p), average revenue (ar), marginal revenue (mr), average cost (ac), and marginal cost (mc) are equal, a firm is in a state of long-run equilibrium in perfect competition. In this scenario, the firm earns normal profits, as total revenue equals total cost, and there is no incentive for firms to enter or exit the market. This equality indicates that firms are maximizing their profits while producing at the most efficient scale. Consequently, resources are allocated efficiently in the market.
It's when the MR is not equal to MC. The firm in this case is unable to produce output the equals marginal revenue to marginal cost.
Albert Einstein.
Yes.
Mr Mc Kee