One.
No, the ideal is without friction.
Mechanical Advantage = Effort/Load
It only takes half the effort to move an object but twice the distance
This is because the actual mechanical advantage is the actual calculation found after dividing the effort force by the output force. Ideal mechanical advantage is what many people would call and estimate. When estimating mechanical advantage, the numbers are always rounded. This makes actual mechanical advantage less. Sources: Science teacher ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ The answer above is incorrect. The ideal mechanical advantage (IMA) is usually less than the mechanical advantage (MA) in a given machine because of the friction acting on the machine. There will always be some frictional resistance that increases the effort necessary to do the work.
In real machines, there is always friction that reduces the efficiency of the machine.This reduces the mechanical advantage because some of the input force has to be used to overcome the force of friction in the machine.To reduce friction in the machine, you could add a lubricant such as oil.
The ideal mechanical advantage of a lever is calculated by dividing the distance from the input force to the fulcrum by the distance from the output force to the fulcrum. In this case, with the fulcrum 2m to the right, the mechanical advantage would be different for different positions along the lever.
The ideal mechanical advantage of a lever is calculated by dividing the distance from the fulcrum to the input force (effort arm) by the distance from the fulcrum to the output force (load arm). In this case, the effort arm is 75 cm (starting at the fulcrum) and the load arm is 25 cm (ending at the output force). Therefore, the ideal mechanical advantage is 75 cm / 25 cm = 3.
The ideal mechanical advantage of the oar can be calculated using the formula: MA = Length of effort arm / Length of resistance arm. In this case, the length of the effort arm (handle) is 160 cm, and the length of the resistance arm (blade) is 40 cm. Therefore, the ideal mechanical advantage of the oar is 160 cm / 40 cm = 4.
No, the ideal is without friction.
The mechanical advantage of a lever is determined by dividing the length of the lever on the effort side (distance from the fulcrum to the point where the effort is applied) by the length on the resistance side (distance from the fulcrum to the point where the resistance is located). This ratio provides insight into how much force is gained or lost when using the lever.
The ideal mechanical advantage of a ramp is directly related to the height of the ramp. The ideal mechanical advantage is calculated as the ratio of the length of the ramp to its vertical height. So, the higher the ramp, the greater the ideal mechanical advantage.
It is 7.5
Mechanical Advantage = Effort/Load
it is less than the ideal mechanical advantage
Mechanical advantage is determined by physical measurement of the input and output forces and takes into account energy loss due to deflection, friction, and wear. The ideal mechanical advantage, meanwhile, is the mechanical advantage of a device with the assumption that its components do not flex, there is no friction, and there is no wear.
Ideal mechanical advantage is a numerical ratio. It's a naked number without a unit.
The actual mechanical advantage is usually less, due to losses.