No.Finding an obtuse triangle that does not have a greater area than any acute triangle will show the statement is false:Consider the obtuse triangle with sides 25, 25, 40 cm; andthe acute triangles with sides 2, 2, 2 cm and 40, 40, 40 cmArea of (A) obtuse triangle = 40 x 12 ÷ 2 = 240 cm2Area of (B) acute 2, 2, 2 cm triangle = 2 x √3 ÷ 2 = √3 cm2 ~= 1.7 cm2Area of (C) acute 40, 40, 40 cm triangle = 40 x (20 x √3) ÷ 2 = 400 x √3 cm2 ~= 692.8 cm2So you can clearly see that area of acute triangle (C) is greater than that of obtuse triangle (B) which is greater than acute triangle (A).Thus the area of obtuse triangle (B) is not greater than that of any acute triangle.(Obtuse triangle A has angles approx 37o, 37o, 106o, whereas triangles B and C are equilateral acute triangles with angles 60o, 60o, 60o.)
klsjflk
Area of any triangle is: 0.5*base*height
base times height divided by 2.
It has 3 sides It has 3 exterior angles that add up to 360 degrees It has 3 interior angles that add up to 180 degrees It has a perimeter which is the sum of its 3 sides It has an area which is: 0.5*base*perpendicular height It has no diagonals It will tessellate It can be a scalene triangle having 3 different acute angles It can be an obtuse triangle having 1 obtuse angle and 2 different acute angle It can be a right angle triangle having a 90 degree angle and 2 acute angles It can be an isosceles triangle having 2 equal sides and 2 equal acute angles It can be an equilateral triangle having 3 equal sides and 3 equal 60 degree angles It is subject to the rules of trigonometry
Yes
Not at all.
It can have the same area, a greater area or a less area all depending on the dimensions of their 3 sides.
No.Finding an obtuse triangle that does not have a greater area than any acute triangle will show the statement is false:Consider the obtuse triangle with sides 25, 25, 40 cm; andthe acute triangles with sides 2, 2, 2 cm and 40, 40, 40 cmArea of (A) obtuse triangle = 40 x 12 ÷ 2 = 240 cm2Area of (B) acute 2, 2, 2 cm triangle = 2 x √3 ÷ 2 = √3 cm2 ~= 1.7 cm2Area of (C) acute 40, 40, 40 cm triangle = 40 x (20 x √3) ÷ 2 = 400 x √3 cm2 ~= 692.8 cm2So you can clearly see that area of acute triangle (C) is greater than that of obtuse triangle (B) which is greater than acute triangle (A).Thus the area of obtuse triangle (B) is not greater than that of any acute triangle.(Obtuse triangle A has angles approx 37o, 37o, 106o, whereas triangles B and C are equilateral acute triangles with angles 60o, 60o, 60o.)
No,because all the missing space will go to the lenght
No reason why it should, area varies as base and height.
klsjflk
the area referrers to the length and circumference of the triangle it self. The measurement matters to find the acute angle it self as a angle not a triangle
Area = 0.5*base*altitude
Area of any triangle is: 0.5*base*height
The area of any triangle is (1/2 the length of its base) x (its height).
base times height divided by 2.