No, they are not and nor are they all divisible by 2.
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∙ 9y agobecause 6 is also divisiable by 3... just alike all numbers that are divisable by 162 are divisable by 6 AND 3
All numbers of the form 52k where k is a integer.
No, 6 is divisable by 3 but not divisable by 9, same goes for 12, 15 and 24 ... so on.
514 is divisible by these numbers: 1 2 257 and 514.
No. The number 22 is divisable by 2 (2 x 11 = 22). Prime numbers can only be divided by 1 and themselves.
Yes, all even numbers (numbers ending in 0, 2, 4, 6, or 8) are divisable by 2. the answer is equal to 2,921.
Yes because there is 9, 18, 27, ect. including 3 itself.
they are all divisable by 1
All multiples of 288, which is an infinite number.
All multiples of 514, which is an infinite number. The first three numbers are 514, 1028, 1542.
the numbers that are divisable by 5 are 5,25,50,75,100
Any numbers that are multiples of 6 or any numbers that are divisible by bith the numbers 2 and 3
50,45,40,35,30,25,20,15,10,5
A prime number is a number which is only divisable by one and itself, for example 2,3,5,7,11,13 However it is essential to remember that 2 is the ONLY even prime number and 1 is not a prime number because it is only divisable by itself prime numbers are mostly odd numbers.
It is impossible. 2 is the only prime number that is even, all other even numbers are divisable by 2 and therefore not prime. In order to get a remainder of two when dividing by 4, the number must be divisable by 2 but not four. Therefore, any prime number that is divided by 4 would have a remainder of either 1 or 3.
No, it's divisable by 2. Prime numbers are only divisible by one and themselves. 1 is by definistion not prime.No, it is composite.
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