Let's assume for a moment we're not thinking about negative numbers. Only counting numbers from 0-49, there is the same number even as odd so the answer is no. If you didn't include 0, then the answer would be yes.
If you do include negative numbers, then there are an infinite number of both odd and even numbers. In this case it doesn't seem to make sense to say there are more odd numbers than even numbers so the answer is no.
In short: No. Yes if it's only 1-49.
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No it’s can not be a number less than one because a number times one get you the same number
set of all even natural numbers less than 10 = {2, 4, 6, 8}
0,2,4,6,8,10.
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