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A subset of some set X is, by definition, any set whose elements are entirely contained in X. So the answer is yes. As an example, take your infinite set, and select 3 or 10 or any finite number of your favorite elements in this set. The set of your chosen elements is a finite subset of the infinite set.

Q: Can a subset of an infinite set be finite?

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A finite set is one containing a finite number of distinct elements. The elements can be put into a 1-to-1 relationship with a proper subset of counting numbers. An infinite set is one which contains an infinite number of elements.

Sets are collection of distinct objects. In mathematics there are different types of sets like Finite set, Infinite set, Universal set, subset, equal set, equivalent set. Example of Finite set {1,2,3,4}. Infinite set:{1,2,3....}.

A proper subset is a subset that includes some BUT NOT ALL of the elements of the original set. If the subset is finite, its order must be smaller than that of the original set but that need not be the case if the two sets are infinite. For example, even integers are a proper subset of all integers but they both contain an infinite umber of elements.

A set which containing $and pi are the end blocks are the finite and without these are infinite

If a set has "n" elements, then it will have 2n subsets. This number of subsets is always larger than the number of elements - whether the set is finite or infinite.

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prove that every subset of a finite set is a finite set?

A finite set is one containing a finite number of distinct elements. The elements can be put into a 1-to-1 relationship with a proper subset of counting numbers. An infinite set is one which contains an infinite number of elements.

Sets are collection of distinct objects. In mathematics there are different types of sets like Finite set, Infinite set, Universal set, subset, equal set, equivalent set. Example of Finite set {1,2,3,4}. Infinite set:{1,2,3....}.

A proper subset is a subset that includes some BUT NOT ALL of the elements of the original set. If the subset is finite, its order must be smaller than that of the original set but that need not be the case if the two sets are infinite. For example, even integers are a proper subset of all integers but they both contain an infinite umber of elements.

Yes. For example, the set of odd natural numbers is a infinite subset of the set of integers.

A finite set has a finite number of elements, an infinite set has infinitely many.

A set which containing $and pi are the end blocks are the finite and without these are infinite

A finite set is a set with a finite number of elements. An infinite set has an infinite number of elements. Intuitively, if you count the elements in a finite set, you will eventually finish counting; with an infinite set, you'll never finish counting. One characteristic of infinite sets is that they can be placed in one-to-one correspondence with proper subsets of the set. For example, if A = {1, 2, 3, 4, ...} (the counting numbers), and B = {2, 3, 4, 5, ...} (the counting numbers, starting at 2), then B is a proper subset of A, and they can be placed in one-to-one correspondence like this: 1 <---> 2; 2 <---> 3; 3 <---> 4, etc. This means that, in a certain sense, the set and its proper subset have "the same number of elements". Such a one-to-one correspondence (between a set and one of its proper subsets) is not possible with finite sets.

The way I understand it, a finite set can not be an infinite set, because if it were an infinite set, then it would not be a finite set, and the original premise would be violated.

A set which containing $and pi are the end blocks are the finite and without these are infinite

finite

If a set has "n" elements, then it will have 2n subsets. This number of subsets is always larger than the number of elements - whether the set is finite or infinite.