Yes as for example 1/16 divded by 1/4 = 1/4
The quotient will be less. 1/2 ÷ 2 = 1/4
When both fractions are less than 1, their values are represented by numbers between 0 and 1. Dividing one fraction by another (where both are less than 1) effectively involves multiplying by the reciprocal of the denominator, which is greater than 1. This means the quotient will yield a result that is larger than either of the original fractions. Thus, the quotient of two fractions, both less than 1, will always be greater than either fraction.
The quotient will be less than the dividend if the divisor is greater than 1. If the divisor is 1, the quotient will equal the dividend. If the divisor is between 0 and 1, the quotient will be greater than the dividend.
There can be no reason because your assertion is not true.For example, 1/6 and 1/2 are both fractions less than one. But their quotient is (1/6)/(1/2) = (1/6)*(2/1) = 2/6 = 1/3. And that is not more than 1/2.
To determine if the quotient of two fractions is greater than 1, compare the two fractions directly. If the numerator (the first fraction) is greater than the denominator (the second fraction), the quotient will be greater than 1. Alternatively, you can convert the division of fractions into multiplication by flipping the second fraction and multiplying; if the result is greater than 1, the original quotient is also greater than 1.
The quotient will be less. 1/2 ÷ 2 = 1/4
greater
It will be greater.
it is smaller (1/2)/2=.25
Generally, the quotient of a whole number divided by a fraction will be greater than that whole number, because division is simply multiplying the dividend by the reciprocal of the divisor. For instance: 2 / (1/2) = 2 * (2/1)
There can be no reason because your assertion is not true.For example, 1/6 and 1/2 are both fractions less than one. But their quotient is (1/6)/(1/2) = (1/6)*(2/1) = 2/6 = 1/3. And that is not more than 1/2.
The answer will depend on the sign of the fraction.(1/4) / 2 = 1/8, which is smaller.(-1/4) / 2 = -1/8, which is greater.
It need not be. The numbers 1/2 and (-1/2) are both fractions less than 1 but their quotient is -1, which is less than both the fractions.
There can be no answer because it is not necessarily true. Suppose f1 and f2 are two fractions.Suppose f1 = 1/2, which is less than 1;suppose f2 = -1/4, which is also less than 1.Then f1/f2 = -2 which is, in fact, smaller than either fraction. Go figure!
The answer depends on the sign of the numbers.(1/4) / 2 = 1/8, which is smaller.(-1/4) / 2 = -1/8, which is greater.
Yes. Consider two negative fractions. Since they are negative, both are less than 1. But their product is positive and so greater than either.
No. Every proper fraction is less than 1, but improper fraction will be greater than 1.