Wiki User
∙ 12y agoOf course not.
Number if Irrational Numbers is larger than number of rational numbers.
To be more exact: There is no one-to-one mapping of set of rational numbers
to the set of irrational numbers. If there would be such a mapping, their cardinality
(see Cardinality ) would be same.
In reality, rational numbers are countable (cardinality alef0)
real numbers, as well as irrational numbers are not countable (cardinality alef1).
These are topics in
wikipedia.org/wiki/Transfinite_number
theory
Wiki User
∙ 12y agoThere may be many easier and better ways, but here's how I would do it: -- Square the first given irrational number. -- Square the second irrational number. -- Pick a nice ugly complicated decimal between the two squares. -- Take the square root of the number you picked. It's definitely between the two given numbers, and it would be a miracle if it's not irrational.
No, it is rational.
A rational number can be expressed as a simple fraction, an irrational number cannot. More formally: A rational number is any real number that can be expressed as a ratio of two integers (positive or negative whole numbers). (The denominator in the ratio cannot be zero.) An irrational number cannot be expressed in that way. The terms "rational" and "irrational" refer to the idea of "ratio".
The answer will depend on the form in which the irrational number is given. For example, we know that pi is approx 3.14159 and so it falls between 3 and 4.
The given four numbers are all rational numbers
No irrational number can turn into a rational number by itself: you have to do something to it. If you multiply any irrational number by 0, the answer is 0, which is rational. So, given the correct procedure, every irrational number can be turned into a rational number.
There is no such number. Irrational numbers are infinitely dense. Given any number near 13, there are more irrational numbers between that number and 13 than there are rational numbers in all.
There may be many easier and better ways, but here's how I would do it: -- Square the first given irrational number. -- Square the second irrational number. -- Pick a nice ugly complicated decimal between the two squares. -- Take the square root of the number you picked. It's definitely between the two given numbers, and it would be a miracle if it's not irrational.
A real number is an irrational number if it cannot be expressed as a fraction a/b, where a and b are integers. Most real numbers are irrational. The most well known irrational numbers are π and √2. The inverse condition are called the rational numbers.
No, it is rational.
1) Adding an irrational number and a rational number will always give you an irrational number. 2) Multiplying an irrational number by a non-zero rational number will always give you an irrational number.
A rational number can be expressed as a simple fraction, an irrational number cannot. More formally: A rational number is any real number that can be expressed as a ratio of two integers (positive or negative whole numbers). (The denominator in the ratio cannot be zero.) An irrational number cannot be expressed in that way. The terms "rational" and "irrational" refer to the idea of "ratio".
The answer will depend on the form in which the irrational number is given. For example, we know that pi is approx 3.14159 and so it falls between 3 and 4.
The given four numbers are all rational numbers
Yes. It is always {pi} ~= 3.14159265... It is an irrational number {pi} is actually more than just an ordinary irrational number; it is a transcendental number. Only the first 8 decimal digits are given above.
For any given subset, yes, because there are an infinite number of irrational numbers for each rational number. But for the set of ALL real numbers, both are infinite in number, even though the vast majority of real numbers would be irrational.
The product is still irrational. Proof by contradiction: Let X and Y be an element of Q (the set of rational numbers). Thus xy can be written in the form p/q, where p, q are an element of Z (the set of integers), and q is NOT zero. Since X is rational (given in question), it can be written as r/s. Again, r,s are elements of Z and s is not equal to zero. This gives Y=ps/qr, which is also an element of Q (rationals). However, we know that Y is not rational (given in the question), hence this is the contradiction. Hence the product of a rational and an irrational is irrational.