With that particular problem, you're lucky.
Anything divided by '1' is the original number.
0.12 divided by '1' is 0.12.
012 = 12 = 1200%
12.5 is not equal to 012 or to 4.
It is phi, {0}, {1}, {2}, {0,1}, {0,2}, {1,2} and {0,1,2}.
67 is an integer, not a fraction, and it is closer to 012 (= 12).
To convert the number 012 to cents, you first recognize that it represents 12 cents. This is because the leading zero does not change the value of the number. Thus, 012 is equivalent to 12 cents.
The standard for of 012 is just 12 - without the zero.If you mean .012 (some signs get eliminated in answers.com questions), that already IS the standard form.
.025 is thicker than .012
.012
what gauge is .012"?
012 = 12 = 1200%
1, 2, 4, 2753, 5506, 11012
12.5 is not equal to 012 or to 4.
No. A correlation coefficient cannot be less than -1 (or greater than +1)
67 is an integer, not a fraction, and it is closer to 012 (= 12).
It is phi, {0}, {1}, {2}, {0,1}, {0,2}, {1,2} and {0,1,2}.
Piper's Picks TV - 2008 Piper's Picks 012 Phineas and Ferb 1-12 was released on: USA: 21 July 2008
12 over 1000 (.1 is 1/10 .01 is 1/100 and .001 is 1/1000) If you multiply .012 by 1000 you will get 12 (a whole number without a remainder.) Which is why 12 divided by 1000 equals .012 or 12/1000 = .012 Just like each place number before a decimal is a multiple of 10 (eg 1, 10, 100, 1,000 etc) so each place number after a decimal is a devision of 10 as shown above.