Sometimes it looks simple, such as in 1, 2, 3, ? , ?, 6. Others it is impossible as in 1, -7.2, 3, ?, ? , 16. Even in the first case, if the real sequence was 1,2,3,6,6,6 you would never know. Some people would plot them on a graph and fit a smooth curve through them.
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1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8
How do i find the mode of the number six?
Given any number it is easy to find a rule based on a polynomial of order 6 such that the first six numbers are as listed in the question and the next is the given number. There are also non-polynomial solutions.However, the only solution based on a polynomial of order 5 isUn = (11n5 - 195n4 + 1305n3 - 4065n2 + 5704n - 2340)/60 for n = 1, 2, 3, ...and according to this rule, the next (missing) number is 45.
3.3.5.4.4.6 It seems that the sequence takes the doubled numbers than adds two to the said number, such as five. So with that theory it would be logical that six would come after the doubled fours.
Lacking any unmentioned specific limitations in the rather vague question; Yes, eventually. Even in a 'random' string of numbers, any six consecutive numbers will eventually occur again, assuming the string of numbers is sufficiently long (such as in the digits of pi). Another example: Six dice, each one with its 6 surfaces numbered 1 to 6, when thrown will give six numbers facing upwards. That same combination (or sequence) of six numbers will eventually appear again if the 6 dice are thrown a sufficient number of times.