It can if you divide by zero.
1. Let a and b be equal non-zero quantities
a = b
2. Multiply both sides by a
a^2 = ab
3. Subtract b^2
a^2 - b^2 = ab - b^2
4. Factor both sides
(a - b)(a + b) = b(a - b)
5. Divide out (a - b)
a + b = b
6. Since a = b ...
b + b = b
7. Combine like terms on the left
2b = b
8. Divide by the non-zero b
2 = 1
Cannot prove that 2 divided by 10 equals 2 because it is not true.
a0=(a-1\a-1)=a\a=1
No, because technically, it is not true.
== == 1 circle = 2 stars
It isn't equal, and any proof that they are equal is flawed.
You can't it equals 2. You can't it equals 2.
Using a calculator
This is a very difficult philosophical question. The best way to look at it is that 2 is defined as 1 plus 1 ! (If it isn't, how do you define 2?)
1 does not equal 2. There are many supposed proofs that work on the assumption that readers will not notice an attempt to divide both sides by zero.
Using faulty logic.
no if 1 plus 1 equals 2 then 2 plus 2 equals 4.
Is the following what you are claiming? 2k = 2k+1 -1 20 not equal 20+1 - 1 21 not equal 21+1 -1
the expression is: 1^2=1 2^2+(2-1)^2=5 3^2+(3-1)^2+(3-2)^2=14
1 + 1 = 2 1 = 2 - 1 1 + 1 - 2 = 0 0 = 2 - 1 - 1
Add 2.
No it equals 2
Assuming a geometry in which Euclid's Fifth Postulate is considered true... Yes, someone can prove that.