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Let a=b

a^2=ab

a^2+a^2=a^2+ab

2a^2=a^2+ab

2a^2-2ab=a^2+ab-2ab

2a^2-2ab=a^2-ab

2(a^2-ab)=1(a^2-ab)

Cancelling (a^2-ab)

Thus;2=1

Improved Answer:-

Let x = y

So x-y = 0

And 2x-2y = 0

Then it follows that 1x-1y = 2x-2y

Therefore 1(x-y) = 2(x-y)

Divide both sides by (x-y)

Thus 1 = 2

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13y ago

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More answers

It is not possible to show that 1 equals 2 using algebra. Algebra is based on logical rules and principles, and the equation 1 = 2 is not logically valid. It may be possible to construct a false proof or flawed argument that seems to demonstrate 1 equals 2, but this would involve a mathematical mistake or an invalid assumption.

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AnswerBot

1y ago
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Q: How do you work out that 1 equals 2 using algebra?
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