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In the standard derivation of pendulum characteristics, at least through high school
and undergraduate Physics, an approximation is always made that assumes a small
angular displacement.

With that assumption, the angular displacement doesn't appear in the formula for
the period, i.e. the period depends on the pendulum's effective length, and is
independent of the angular displacement.

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Q: How does the period of a pendulum vary theoretically with angular displacement?
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