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4 inches equal how many yards and inches?
4 inches equals 4 inches, their are 36 inches needed to make one yard lol.In order to find how many yards in an inch with inches left over, the amount of inches has to be at least 36, then simply use old school division to find the answer (division with a no decimal remainder). For example how many yards with inches left over in 37 inches? 37/36=1 R 1 or 37 inches divides into one group of 1 yard (36) with 1 left over (remainder is the inches left over. Or simply take I/36=Y (any answer with a remainder is number of inches left over). I=inches you wish to find out how many yards are in, the number of inches must be 36 or more for this to work correctly. R I =if its a remainder the remainder is the number of inches left over 38/36=1 r 2 38 inches have one yard (36) and 2 inches left over
How many inches r in a feet?
there are 12 inches in a foot
How many feet r in 948 inches?
79
What is the difference between a permutation and combination?
n p =n!/(n-r)! r and n c =n!/r!(n-r)! r
Why is it said that poisson distribution is a limiting case of binomial distribution?
This browser is totally bloody useless for mathematical display but...The probability function of the binomial distribution is P(X = r) = (nCr)*p^r*(1-p)^(n-r) where nCr =n!/[r!(n-r)!]Let n -> infinity while np = L, a constant, so that p = L/nthenP(X = r) = lim as n -> infinity of n*(n-1)*...*(n-k+1)/r! * (L/n)^r * (1 - L/n)^(n-r)= lim as n -> infinity of {n^r - O[(n)^(k-1)]}/r! * (L^r/n^r) * (1 - L/n)^(n-r)= lim as n -> infinity of 1/r! * (L^r) * (1 - L/n)^(n-r) (cancelling out n^r and removing O(n)^(r-1) as being insignificantly smaller than the denominator, n^r)= lim as n -> infinity of (L^r) / r! * (1 - L/n)^(n-r)Now lim n -> infinity of (1 - L/n)^n = e^(-L)and lim n -> infinity of (1 - L/n)^r = lim (1 - 0)^r = 1lim as n -> infinity of (1 - L/n)^(n-r) = e^(-L)So P(X = r) = L^r * e^(-L)/r! which is the probability function of the Poisson distribution with parameter L.
