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This 'proof' is a well known mathematical fallacy that is actually proving that:

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Q: How you proove 1 equals 2?

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By surreptitiously dividing by 0 in the middle of the proof.

== == 1 circle = 2 stars

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No, it equals -2

Unfortunately, 2 over 2 minus 1 equals 5 over 6 is just a wrong answer! If it is 2 over 2, minus 1, the answer is that it equals zero. If it is 2, over 2 minus 1, the answer is that it equals 2.

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By surreptitiously dividing by 0 in the middle of the proof.

no if 1 plus 1 equals 2 then 2 plus 2 equals 4.

2 times 1 equals 2.

== == 1 circle = 2 stars

You can't it equals 2. You can't it equals 2.

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the expression is: 1^2=1 2^2+(2-1)^2=5 3^2+(3-1)^2+(3-2)^2=14

1 + 1 = 2 1 = 2 - 1 1 + 1 - 2 = 0 0 = 2 - 1 - 1

Add 2.

No it equals 2

2 plus 2 equals 4plus1 equals 5minus 1 equals 4divided by 2 equals 2plus 8 equals 1010 minus 6 equals 4so it all equals to +_____29so its 29 !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

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