Yes normally but if both irrational number are the same then the quotient will be 1
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Let A be a non-zero rational number and B be an irrational number and let A*B = C.Suppose their product C, is rational.Then, dividing both sides of the equation by A gives B = A/C.Now, since A and C are both rational, A/C must be rational.Therefore you have B (irrational) = A/C (irrational).Clearly, this is impossible and therefore the supposition must be wrong. That is to say, A*B cannot be ration or, it must be irrational.
no. irrational numbers are always infininately long, otherwise the could be represented as a fraction by multiplying by 10^n and dividing by 10^n where n is a number large enough to make the number a number with no decimals.
An irrational number.
A rational number is any number that can be made by dividing one integer by another.0.5 is a rational number as it can be made by dividing the number 1 by the number 22 is a rational number because it can be made by dividing 2 by 1-6.6 is a rational number because it can be made by dividing -66 by 10---------------------------------------------------------Note there are number that are called irrational numbers. Irrational numbers are all "real" numbers (numbers with a decimal point) that cannot be written as a simple fraction - the decimal goes on forever without repeating.For instance the number Pi is an irrational number.A rational number is a real number that can be expressed as a ratio of two integers. Another way to think about it is this: if you can write a number as a fraction then it's a rational number.
The value of pi is found by dividing the circumference of a circle by its diameter and pi is an irrational number which means it can not be expressed as a fraction.