Is 39 over 72 equivalent to 26 over 48?

Answer 1

To determine if ( \frac{39}{72} ) is equivalent to ( \frac{26}{48} ), we can simplify both fractions. Simplifying ( \frac{39}{72} ) gives ( \frac{13}{24} ) and simplifying ( \frac{26}{48} ) gives ( \frac{13}{24} ) as well. Since both fractions simplify to the same value, ( \frac{39}{72} ) is indeed equivalent to ( \frac{26}{48} ).