No. Its prime factors are 7 and 3; the sole prime factor of 8 is 2, therefore 42 cannot be divisible by 8.
42 is divisible by 14, but not divisible by 8, 5 nor 9.
42 is divisible by 2, 3 and 6 but not by 9.
No, because 25 is only divisible by 5 and 42 is not divisible by 5.
168 is divisible by 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 21, 24, 28, 42, 56, 84, and 168
No. 42 is not evenly divisible by four.
42 is divisible by 14, but not divisible by 8, 5 nor 9.
42 is divisible by 2, 3 and 7
Yes - 336/8 = 42
2 or 8
42 is divisible by any of its factors including itself
42 is divisible by 2, 3 and 6 but not by 9.
No, because 25 is only divisible by 5 and 42 is not divisible by 5.
168 is divisible by 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 21, 24, 28, 42, 56, 84, and 168
No. 42 is not evenly divisible by four.
Well, honey, you add up the digits of 42 (which gives you 4+2=6) and if that sum is divisible by 3, then the original number is also divisible by 3. In this case, 6 is divisible by 3, so yes, 42 is divisible by 3. Math can be fun when you know the tricks!
no
No.