yes. if you have four cookies, and you give them to four people, each person gets one cookie. four divided by four equals one
Any of its factors which are 1, 2, 4 and 8
4, 124, 3048 and 1432 are all divisible by 4.
You can divide anything by 2 or 5 but it may go into decimals
Any number that ends in '5' or '0' is divisible by '5'. Any number that ends in '0' is divisible by '10'. Hence 100,000 is dividible by both '5' and '10' . The repective answer are 20,000 and 10,000. A number such as 1,000,005 is only divisible by '5'. Hence the answer is 200,001
Let's suppose the opposite and say that it is rational, so we can write it as a fraction of two natural numbers, where m 1:l/mLet's chose l and m in the way that the fraction l/m will be reduced, i.e, l and m have no common divider.So, according to the supposed, (l/m)2 = nFrom here, l2 = nm2Now we see that l should be dividible by m. But we've chosen l and m in such a way that it couldn't be. Contradiction.So we cannot represent the square of n as a rational fracture.
No, 33,015 divided by 4 is 8,253.75
Any of its factors which are 1, 2, 4 and 8
4, 124, 3048 and 1432 are all divisible by 4.
49 is divisible by 1, 7 and 49
Yes, 612 / 9 = 68
It has to be divisible by 2 and 3 to be dividible by 6.
345 is divisible by 2, but it results in 172.5, which is not an integer.
30 and any integer times 30.
You can divide anything by 2 or 5 but it may go into decimals
It can be, so please rephrase your question. All multiples of 40 are also dividible by 8.
1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 14, 21, 42
The definition of a prime number is a number that is dividible by 1 and itself, so it has only two factors. 1 has only one factor, so it does not fit the definition of a prime number.