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Does 3 pints equal 1 cup?
No, 3 pints do not equal 1 cup. In the imperial system, 1 pint is equal to 2 cups, so 3 pints would be equal to 6 cups. In the US customary system, 1 pint is also equal to 2 cups, so again, 3 pints would be equivalent to 6 cups. Therefore, 3 pints equal 6 cups in both systems.
Does three fourths a cup equal 5 oz?
A cup is 8 fl. oz. 3/4 of 8 is 6 oz. So no it does not equal 5 oz.
How many 1 ounces is in 6 cups?
1 cup = 8 oz 6 cups = 6x8 = 48 oz
How many cups are in three and three fourths pints?
There are 2 Cups in a Pint and 8 Ounces in a Cup SO ...(3 x 2 = 6) + (3/4 x 1) = 63/4 = 6 Cups 6 Oz.
How many cups equals 52 oz?
8 fl oz = 1 cup 16 fl oz = 2 cups . . 48 fl oz = 6 cups 52 fl oz = 61/2 cups
How many cups does 6 fl. oz. equal?
6 fl. oz. is equivalent to 0.75 cups.
6 tablespoons is equal to what?
6 tablespoons is equal to 0.375 cups.
6 cups is equal to how many fl oz?
6 cups is 48 fl oz.
How many cups are there in 6 oz?
There are 0.75 cups in 6 oz.
Which is equal to 6 cups?
6 cups is equal to 3 US pints.
How many cups of sugar is 6 oz?
There are about 3/4 cup of sugar in 6 oz.
How many cups of mayonnaise are in a 30 oz jar?
That should be about enough for 6 cups. There are 8 oz to a cup.
How many oz equal 6 cups of flour?
That is approximately 1.5 cups
How many 6 oz cups are ther in 175 liter?
There are approximately 51.4 cups in 175 liters, if each cup is 6 oz.
How many cups of chocolate chips equal 9 oz?
If 12 oz is 2 cups and 6 oz is 1 cup then 3 oz would be 1/2 cup, right?
How much does 6 oz of onion equals how many cups?
6 ounces of onion would be equal to 3/4 of a cup. This is because a cup is equal to 8 ounces.
What is 52 fl oz in cups?
There are 8 fluid ounces in 1 cup. To convert 52 fluid ounces to cups, you would divide 52 by 8. This gives you 6.5 cups. Therefore, 52 fluid ounces is equal to 6.5 cups.
