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No. Say for example interval A is (-inf, 0), and interval B is (0, inf). Even though they are both infinite, their intersection is the empty set (i.e. they have nothing in common). The same applies to sets. That being said, it is entirely possible for two infinite intervals' intersection to be infinite. All that is required is that one is a subset of the other (one set contains all of the other set, for example A = (0, inf) and B = (1, inf). Here, A contains all of B, and therefore, their intersection is B. This means that their intersection is infinite.)

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Q: Is the intersection of two infinite intervals always infinite?
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