It is correct that inequality multiplied by same number on both side is equivalent inequality i.e. 5≥3 Inequality greater than or equal is multiplied is multiplied by 7. We get 35 ≥21
Or the reverse might be true 3≤ 5 if multiplied by 7 is 21≤ 35
We may specify the number 1≤x ≤ y where y∈ℕ any natural number. This may have different implications in practical life. Two gang of criminals x and y exist where x ≥ y when both gangs are sponsored by so-called democratic government and they get multiplication by corruption factor 'c' xc ≥ yc is now un-manageable
positive and positive are positive positive and negative are negative negative and negative is positive
Not always. Specifically, you switch the sign when you multiply or divide both sides of the inequality BY A NEGATIVE NUMBER. Example:4 > 3 Multiplying by -2: -8 < -6
You can always find equivalent fractions by multiplying a fraction by 2. Therefore, 27/35 is the same as 54/70 and the same as 108/140.
yes
not always,sometimes you have to solve for x
positive and positive are positive positive and negative are negative negative and negative is positive
Always.
Not always. Specifically, you switch the sign when you multiply or divide both sides of the inequality BY A NEGATIVE NUMBER. Example:4 > 3 Multiplying by -2: -8 < -6
You can always find equivalent fractions by multiplying a fraction by 2. Therefore, 27/35 is the same as 54/70 and the same as 108/140.
There is always going to be gender inequality in the work place because men and women will always be different creatures.
yes
not always,sometimes you have to solve for x
Yes, it is true that the first numbers in two equivalent ratios will always have a common factor. This common factor is known as the scale factor, which is used to create equivalent ratios by multiplying or dividing both parts of the ratio by the same number. This ensures that the ratios maintain the same proportionality.
Multiplying a negative number is always negative. There really is not a comparison for this type of math problem.
Your answer will always be even
The triangle inequality theorem states that any side of a triangle is always shorter than the sum of the other two sides.
no they are not always equivalent.