Yes by 4 inches
4ft 1in 4ft 1 39/64in
depends on where i have missed the displaced volume..............could be anywhere...
area = pi x r^2 so area/pi = r^2 so square root of area/pi = r
Area = pi times r squared SO r = square root of (area/pi) d = 2 r
Yes by 4 inches
http://www.blubberbuster.com/height_weight.html
The question as it is posed is not able. The question compares a length (64in) with an area (1 sq ft). If the intended question is 'What is smaller an area of 1 sq ft or an area of 64 sq in', then 64 sq in is the smaller since 1 sq ft is 144 sq in.
4ft 1in 4ft 1 39/64in
depends on where i have missed the displaced volume..............could be anywhere...
Area = pi*radius2 A = 3,14159... *r*r [where r = radius]
The area of a circle of radius r is pi*r*r
area = pi x r^2 so area/pi = r^2 so square root of area/pi = r
Area = pi times r squared SO r = square root of (area/pi) d = 2 r
Radius, r = diameter / 2 Then circumference = 2*pi*r and area = pi*r*r
The formula for calculating the area of a circle - is Pi x r x r... where r is the radius.
The area of a circle with radius r is pi*r*r where pi = 3.1416 approx. When r = 6 cm, the area is 113.1 sq cm.