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The ideal mechanical advantage for an inclined plane is equal to the length of the incline divided by the?
Ideal Mechanical Advantage for an Inclined Plane is equal to the length of the incline divided by the height of the incline.
Can a inclined plane have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is equal to length divided by height (l/h). Therefore, if the length is less than than the height, the mechanical advantage would be less than one.
What is the formula used to calculate mechanical advantage?
Mechanical advantage=load/effort
Why is the actual mechanical advantage of an inclined plane alwaysess than the theoretical mechanical advantage?
This is because the actual mechanical advantage is the actual calculation found after dividing the effort force by the output force. Ideal mechanical advantage is what many people would call an estimate. When estimating mechanical advantage, the numbers are always rounded. This makes actual mechanical advantage less. Sources: Science teacher
What is the mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle?
The mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is the ratio of the radius of the wheel to the radius of the axle.
What does mechanical advantage equal?
Mechanical advantage equals resistance force.
The ideal mechanical advantage for an inclined plane is equal to the length of the incline divided by the?
Ideal Mechanical Advantage for an Inclined Plane is equal to the length of the incline divided by the height of the incline.
What is the mechanical advantage of a wedge that requires an input force of N to do N of work?
The mechanical advantage of a wedge in this case would be 1, as the input force is equal to the work done. This means that the wedge is not providing any mechanical advantage, as the force required is equal to the work accomplished.
The ideal mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is equal to the?
The ideal mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is equal to the radius of the wheel divided by the radius of the axle.
What is the ma of a machine that has an f out equal to its f in?
The mechanical advantage (MA) of a machine that has an output force equal to its input force is 1. This means that the machine does not provide any mechanical advantage, as the output force is equal to the input force.
What is equal to the output force divided by the input force?
mechanical advantage
What does the output force divided by the input force equal?
Efficiency of a machine or mechanical advantage
What is equal to the ideal mechanical advantage of a pulley system?
The ideal mechanical advantage of a pulley system is two times the number of pulleys in the system. This is the amount of force required to get the system moving.
Which is equal to the ideal mechanical advantage of a pulley system?
It only takes half the effort to move an object but twice the distance
How can we analyaze the mechanical advantage of a pulley system?
To analyze the mechanical advantage of a pulley system, you calculate it by dividing the output force (load) by the input force (applied force). The mechanical advantage of a pulley system is equal to the number of rope sections supporting the load. More rope sections mean a greater mechanical advantage.
If a machine was 100 percent efficient how would the AMA compare to the IMA?
If a machine was 100 percent efficient, the AMA would be equal to the IMA. This is because in an ideal scenario where the machine loses no energy to friction or other factors, the AMA (actual mechanical advantage) would be the same as the IMA (ideal mechanical advantage).
Can a inclined plane have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is equal to length divided by height (l/h). Therefore, if the length is less than than the height, the mechanical advantage would be less than one.
