3, 9, 15, 21, 27, 33, 39, 45.
No. A prime number has only two factors, 1 and itself. But 42 is dividable by 2, 3, 6 and 7.
There is not a real number between them. If there is then it would most likely be three and one half.
2.25
2.25
63
2 is the only prime number dividable by 2. to be a prime number, it must only be dividable by 1 and itself. This is the reason why 2 is the only prime number dividable by 2. If any other number was dividable by two then it would not be prime any more
By two and a half
No. A prime number has only two factors, 1 and itself. But 42 is dividable by 2, 3, 6 and 7.
There is not a real number between them. If there is then it would most likely be three and one half.
The difference between three times a number and one is two times the number.
Two and three-quarters or 2.75 or 2 3/4
2.25
2.25
2n - 3
63
The answer is -3.5
There are not just three real numbers but an infinity of them Not only that , between any two of them there is an infinity of real numbers. And between any two of them ...