answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

According to Wittgenstein's Finite Rule Paradox every finite sequence of numbers can be a described in infinitely many ways and so can be continued any of these ways - some simple, some complicated but all equally valid. Conversely, it is possible to find a rule such that any number of your choice can be the 40th one.
Using one of these infinitely many solutions, the answer is T(40) = 3198.

User Avatar

Wiki User

6y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: What is the 40th term of 0 6 16 30 48 .....?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp