42 and 84 both qualify
Yes, both.
42
42 and 49 are both divisible by 7. 42/49= 6/7
42 is a composite number as it is divisible by 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, 14, 21 and 42.
42 and 84 both qualify
21. GCF means what is the greatest number that goes into both, and 21*2=42.
The difference between a number and its reverse must be divisible by 9. 42 is NOT divisible by 9. There is, therefore, no such number.
Yes, the GCF of a # doesn't have to be either of the 2 #'s. In the case of 16 and 42 the GCF is 2 because that is the greatest # that both the numbers are equally divisible by. If it was 16 and 48, then the GCF would be 16 because that is the highest # both are equally divisible by.
Both are divisible by 6.
Yes, both.
42 is divisible by 2 (and other factors) so it is a composite number
42
42 and 49 are both divisible by 7. 42/49= 6/7
The list is infinite. Here are some of them: 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42.
First, using your 2 divisibility rule, we find that both are even, therefore both are divisible by 2. Now, using the 3 divisibility rule, we know that 1 + 2 + 8 + 1 = 12, and 4 + 2 = 6, both multiples of 3. Thus, it must be divisible by 3 and 2, and it must divisible by 6! If so, then dividing both by 6 yields:1218/6 = 203, 42/6 = 7.Now both values are prime, therefore, 6 is the GCF of 1218 and 42.
To determine if 42 is divisible by 3, you can add up the digits of 42 (4 + 2 = 6) and check if the sum is divisible by 3. Since 6 is divisible by 3, then 42 is also divisible by 3. This is based on the rule that a number is divisible by 3 if the sum of its digits is divisible by 3.