Any number that you choose can be the next number. It is easy to find a rule based on a polynomial of order 4 such that the first four numbers are as listed in the question followed by the chosen next number. There are also non-polynomial solutions. Short of reading the mind of the person who posed the question, there is no way of determining which of the infinitely many solutions is the "correct" one.
For example,
If you want the next number to be 1: try the rule
t(n) = (-4*n^4 + 40*n^3 - 134*n^2 + 188*n - 87)/3.
If you want 2, try t(n) = (-5*n^4 + 50*n^3 - 167*n^2 + 234*n - 108)/4
If you want 6, try t(n) = (-9*n^4 + 90*n^3 - 299*n^2 + 418*n - 192)/8
The simplest rule, based on a polynomial of order 3, is
t(n) = 2*n^2 - 4*n + 3 and accordingly, the next number is 33.
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The pattern is this: The number before, plus itself plus 2. For example: 1 (number)+ 0 (number berfore)+ 2 (always use a two in this pattern) = 3 then 1+3+2=6 then 3+6+2+11 and 6+11+2=19, which is your pattern. So the answer is 11+19+2=32. Now the pattern is 1,3,6,11,19,32 Thats a wrap.
19 + 3 = 22 to repeat the pattern
If you eliminate the first number, the rest are prime and the next one would be 29.
what are the next numbers in the pattern 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13,_,_
The next three are 29, 31, 37.Though technically 1 should not be the first one in the list as it is not a prime number.