Thank you. We'll add your question to that special category of questions
preserved in dry nitrogen here at our Headquarters, which includes such
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-- The sound of one hand clapping ?
-- The best use for a single tweezer ?
-- A good place to buy one scissor ?
-- The date of the partial football score: 4 ?
42 is between 41 and 43.
You said between, that means not including either 27 or 42. So 'between' 27 and 29, there is one integer(28). 29-27 = 2, which is one more than the # of integers between. So subtract (42-27) and that will be one more than the integers between.
None. But, 14 is between the two odd integers 13 and 15.
12 + 14 + 16 = 42
No. There are infinitely many rational numbers between any two integers.
42 is between 41 and 43.
41 is between the integers 40 and 42. This can be determined by understanding that integers are whole numbers without any decimal or fractional parts. In this case, 41 is one unit greater than 40 and one unit less than 42 on the number line.
The two even integers are 20 and 22. 20 + 22 = 42.
You said between, that means not including either 27 or 42. So 'between' 27 and 29, there is one integer(28). 29-27 = 2, which is one more than the # of integers between. So subtract (42-27) and that will be one more than the integers between.
Half it = 41, so consecutive even integers are 40 & 42
The integers are 20 and 22.
"Consecutive" integers are integers that have no other integer between them.
41 + 42 = 83
42 + 52 = 16 + 25 = 41
Yes
They are integers between 40 and 50, and their GCF is 3.
Assuming you mean consecutive numbers are integers, then: The integers will be the two integers between which the square root of 1722 lies. Calculating the square root of 1722 using the "long" division method: ________4__1 _____---------- ___4|_17_22 _______16 _______--- __81|__122 __________81 __________--- __________41 The square root of 1722 is 41.<something>, thus it lies between 41 and 42, so: 1722 = 41 × 42