15 percent 0 equals 0; 0 percent 15 equals 0. Both the above are true
yes
maybe
0 it equals 0
For y - 2y - 3y equals 0, y equals 0.
why investment in financial market have zero NPV? where as firms can find many investments in their product markets with positive NPVs.
no it increases npv
NPV decreases when the cost of capital is increased.
15 percent 0 equals 0; 0 percent 15 equals 0. Both the above are true
The NPV assumes cash flows are reinvested at the: A. real rate of return B. IRR C. cost of capital D. NPV
yes
maybe
0
0
It equals 0.
It equals 0
Why is the NPV approach often regarded to be superior to the IRR method?