If the gender of a child were an independent variable then the genders of the existing children would be irrelevant and so the probability of the next child being a girl would be approximately 1/2.
It would be approximately 1/2 because the overall proportion is not exactly half. However, and more important, is the fact that the gender of a child is affected by the parents' genes and so is not independent of the gender of previous children.
The 8 possible outcomes for three children are: * ggg * ggb * gbg * gbb * bgg * bgb * bbg * bbb Of these, two girls and a boy occurs 3 out of 8 times, which is a probability of 0.375. This assumes that the probability of a boy and girl being in the family is equal, which is not entirely true for a large number of reasons.
There is no simple answer to the question because the children's genders are not independent events. They depend on the parents' ages and their genes.However, if you assume that they are independent events then, given that the probability of a boy is approx 0.52, the probability of the other two being boys is 0.4994
No, we can't expression any negative value as a probability. A probability ranges from 0 to 1 - 0 being the lowest and 1 being the highest.
4/11
You are not a Jedi.
Nachos
The chance that their eighth child will be a daughter is 50%. The gender of a child is independent of the genders of their siblings, so each child has an equal probability of being a girl.
The probability of a single point being chosen is 0.The probability of a single point being chosen is 0.The probability of a single point being chosen is 0.The probability of a single point being chosen is 0.
1- P(identical) - P(fraternal) =1-0.004-0.023 =0.973 The probability of being a identical or fraternal twin plus the probability of not being a twin has to add to 1. so 1- probability of being twins=probability of not being a twin ;-)
The 8 possible outcomes for three children are: * ggg * ggb * gbg * gbb * bgg * bgb * bbg * bbb Of these, two girls and a boy occurs 3 out of 8 times, which is a probability of 0.375. This assumes that the probability of a boy and girl being in the family is equal, which is not entirely true for a large number of reasons.
There is no simple answer to the question because the children's genders are not independent events. They depend on the parents' ages and their genes.However, if you assume that they are independent events then, given that the probability of a boy is approx 0.52, the probability of the other two being boys is 0.4994
the probability is 1(being the maximum)- the probability you have allredy got. the answer is 0.6
That depends on many factors. For example, if you are a $1 bill, the probability is quite high, whereas if you are a human being, the probability is quite low.
In a probability sample, each unit has the same probability of being included in the sample. Equivalently, given a sample size, each sample of that size from the population has the same probability of being selected. This is not true for non-probability sampling.
No, we can't expression any negative value as a probability. A probability ranges from 0 to 1 - 0 being the lowest and 1 being the highest.
4/11
Favourable probability is the probability that the outcome that you are looking for does actually occur.As an aside, "favourable" can be an unfortunate word if you are looking for the probability of an undesirable outcome - being the victim of a fatal incidence. Not many would consider that as being "favourable".