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Even though the cosine of an angle was not a known concept at the time, Euclid (3rd century BC) in Egypt stated and proved a pair of propositions which were equivalent to the law of cosines. One proposition was applicable for obtuse angles and the other to acute angles.

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Q: When and where was the law of cosines created?
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Related questions

Who discovered the law of cosines?

A caveman from 10,000 BCal-Kashi was the 1st to provide an explicit statement of the law of cosines in a form suitable for triangulation


When would you use the law of sines or law of cosines instead of a trigonometric ratio?

Trigonometric ratios, by themselves, can only be used for right angled triangles. The law of cosines or the sine law can be used for any triangle.


How do you calculate the angles of a triangle knowing the sides?

Law of cosines


Law of cosines with a right angle?

The law of cosines with a right angle is just the pythagorean theorem. The cosine of 90 degrees is 0. That is why the hypotenuse squared is equal to the sum of both of the legs squared


What are the answers to law of cosines in A plus?

The law of cosines can be written in one form as: c2 = a2 + b2 - 2abCos C. Without 3 of the 4 variables being given, there is no way to answer this question.


When you have a right angle what does the law of cosines reduce to?

cosine = adjacent/hypotenuse


Can the law of cosines be applied to right and non-right triangles?

Yes


Can The law of cosines can only be applied to acute triangles?

No, it applies to all triangles.


What does the law of cosines reduce to when dealing with a right triangle?

D. The Pythagorean Theorem


Is it true that the law of cosines reduces the Pythagorean theorem with right triangles?

Yes


Can law of cosines can only be applied to acute triangles?

No, it applies to all triangles.


How are all three versions of the law of cosines correct?

It follows from the cyclical symmetry of the cosine rule.