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This is NOT true.

The cardinality of the set of points in a circle is the same as the cardinality of the set of points in a line.

First, break the circle and straighten it out. I think you would agree that the number of points remains the same.

Now apply some continuous monotonic function that takes one end of that line segment and assigns it to -infinity and the other end to +infinity. I think you would agree that this is possible.

We have now made a one-to-one, invertible correspondence between the points in the original circle and the points in a line, demonstrating that the two objects have the same cardinality.

Roughly speaking!

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Q: Why does a circle have more points than a line?
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