answersLogoWhite

0

It follows from the multiplication property of equality. Dividing both sides of an equation by the same number (not by zero, of course) is the same as multiply both sides of the equation by the number's reciprocal. For example, dividing both sides of an equation by 2 is the same as multiplying both sides by 0.5.

User Avatar

Wiki User

11y ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

ProfessorProfessor
I will give you the most educated answer.
Chat with Professor
SteveSteve
Knowledge is a journey, you know? We'll get there.
Chat with Steve
DevinDevin
I've poured enough drinks to know that people don't always want advice—they just want to talk.
Chat with Devin

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Why is it not necessary to state a division property of equality?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp