answersLogoWhite

0

It follows from the multiplication property of equality. Dividing both sides of an equation by the same number (not by zero, of course) is the same as multiply both sides of the equation by the number's reciprocal. For example, dividing both sides of an equation by 2 is the same as multiplying both sides by 0.5.

User Avatar

Wiki User

11y ago

Still curious? Ask our experts.

Chat with our AI personalities

BeauBeau
You're doing better than you think!
Chat with Beau
JudyJudy
Simplicity is my specialty.
Chat with Judy
TaigaTaiga
Every great hero faces trials, and you—yes, YOU—are no exception!
Chat with Taiga

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Why is it not necessary to state a division property of equality?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp