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Why would you want to use a machine with a mechanical advantage less than 1?
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
Mainly because that's the only kind you can ever get. If you hold out until you
find a machine with a mechanical advantage of not less than 1, you'll never get
the job done. Or even started.
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
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Can a inclined plane have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is equal to length divided by height (l/h). Therefore, if the length is less than than the height, the mechanical advantage would be less than one.
Why is the actual mechanical advantage of an inclined plane alwaysess than the theoretical mechanical advantage?
This is because the actual mechanical advantage is the actual calculation found after dividing the effort force by the output force. Ideal mechanical advantage is what many people would call an estimate. When estimating mechanical advantage, the numbers are always rounded. This makes actual mechanical advantage less. Sources: Science teacher
Why are third class levers used if their mechanical advantage is less that one?
Mechanical advantage is not the only reason to use levers.
What does a mechanical advantages less than 1 equal to 1and greater than 1 tell you about the machine?
It tells me that the machine is imaginary and does not exist.
An inclined plane reduces the effort by?
Lesser the height of inclined plane, and more the length of it, More will be the mechanical advantage of inclined plane i.e less effort would be applied.
What is true about the mechanical advantage of a machine?
it is less than the ideal mechanical advantage
What is true about the mechanical advantage of a machine a it increases with greater friction b it decreases as the input distance increases c it is less than the idle mechanical advantage?
c) It is less than the idle mechanical advantage. The actual mechanical advantage of a machine is always less than the ideal mechanical advantage due to factors like friction and energy losses in the system.
Why is the ama of a machine always less than the ima of a machine?
The actual mechanical advantage (AMA) of a machine is always less than the ideal mechanical advantage (IMA) due to factors such as friction, inefficiencies in the machine's design, and other losses of energy. As a result, the actual output force of a machine is typically less than the input force required to operate it, leading to a lower actual mechanical advantage compared to the ideal mechanical advantage.
What happens to the mechanical advantage of a machine if friction is reduced through the use of oil or some other means?
If friction is reduced through the use of oil or another means, the mechanical advantage of the machine would typically increase. This is because less energy is lost to friction, resulting in more efficient operation and a greater output force compared to the input force.
If the output force is less than the input force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage less than one?
it means the mechanical advantage is greater.
If the input force is less than the input force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage is less than one?
it means the mechanical advantage is greater.
Why is the actual mechanical advantage of a machine different for a machines ideal mechanical advantage?
The actual mechanical advantage of a machine is usually less than its ideal mechanical advantage due to factors like friction, energy loss, and imperfections within the machine. These losses reduce the efficiency of the machine in transferring input force to the output force. Ideal mechanical advantage is based on the design and geometry of the machine, while actual mechanical advantage accounts for real-world limitations and performance.
What is the formula to find mechanical advantage?
The mechanical advantage that a machine would have without friction or in another term is that you can find the IDEAL MECHANICAL ADVANTAGE (IMA) OF A MACHINE IS BY HAVING A MACHINE WITH NO FRICTION, ALSO BY MULTIPLYING YOUR EFFORT FORCE BY 2, HOWEVER BECAUSE OF FRICTION AND THE WEIGHT THE ACTUAL MA WILL BE LESS.
What is the ratio of output force to input force of a machine?
That's the machine's "mechanical advantage".
Can a machine be useful even if its mechanical advantage is less than 1?
yes
The mechanical advantage of a machine is always greater than 1?
False. The mechanical advantage of a machine can be greater than, equal to, or less than 1, depending on the type of machine and how it is designed.
For a given machine explain why the MA is usually less than the IMA?
The mechanical advantage (MA) is usually less than the ideal mechanical advantage (IMA) for a machine due to factors such as friction, inefficiencies in the machine's design, and energy losses through heat or sound. These factors cause the input work to be greater than the output work, resulting in a lower actual mechanical advantage compared to the ideal mechanical advantage.
