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No. If you multiply two prime numbers, any prime numbers, the result will - by definition - not be a Prime number. For example, if you multiply 2 x 3, the result will obviously be divisible by 2 and by 3, and therefore, not be a prime number.

By the way, one is not usually considered a prime number.

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โˆ™ 2010-03-03 00:41:27
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What is the prime factorization of 52

What is the prime factorization of 51

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Q: Will the product of any prime numbers greater than one but less than twenty ever be prime?
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