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If the greatest common factor/divisor of A and B is 1 then they are coprime - they do not share any prime factors. Multiplying both through by C means, obviously, that each number now divides by C. In fact, C is their greatest common divisor, since AC and BC do not have further common factors after C is taken out. Hence the GCF of AC and BC is not merely a factor of C - it is C. (The question makes sense only if A, B and C are integers.)

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Q: How do you prove that if the greatest common factor of A and B equals 1 and C does not equal 0 then the greatest common factor of AC and BC divides C?
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