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Easy. And it need not even involve esoteric mathematical formulas.

Find a circle. Measure the diameter. Write that down, and let us assume for example that it's ten meters.

Now measure the circumference. I know, the meter stick is straight, but that's okay. Get a string and put it all around the circle. Make a mark on the string at the point where it comes all the way back around.

Now straighten the string and measure that. You'll note that it is 31.4 meters! And if you measured even more accurately, you'll note that it's 31.41 meters! Which when you divide by the ten meters, equals 3.14!

But what if it's not ten meters in diameter, where's the proof then?

Well, lets say you find a circle five meters in diameter. Measure the circumference and you'll find it's 15.7 meters. Now take 15.7 and divide it by 5. It will equal 3.14!

No matter what circle's circumference you measure, if you divide that by the diameter, it will equal 3.14. If your measurements are more accurate, it will always equal 3.141. More accurate? 3.1415. And so on.

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βˆ™ 14y ago
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βˆ™ 9y ago

No there is no exact proof because all we know is that the value of pi is a circle's circumference divided by its diameter which is an irrational number that has never been finally determined.

The existence of pi needs no proof, it exists by definition and has a well defined known value by that definition. However as pi is an irrational number that value cannot be written completely in any standard number base system .

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Q: Proof of pi equals 3.14
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